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The client is a 60-year-old female who presents to the clini…

Posted byAnonymous April 16, 2026

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The client is а 60-yeаr-оld femаle whо presents tо the clinic with signs of vaginal itching and vaginal discharge. She recently completed a course of cefdinir for a respiratory tract infection.  Her past medical history includes latent tuberculosis and diabetes.  Her medication list includes: rifampin 600 mg PO BIDmetformin extended release 1000 mg PO with dinner dailyglyburide 5 mg PO daily with breakfastempagliflozin 10 mg PO every morningsaxagliptin 100 mg PO daily The nurse practitioner diagnoses vaginal candidiasis.  Which of the following is the most appropriate first step for the nurse practitioner to take?

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