A shoulder patient is sent home with the following exercise as part of their home exercise program.  The goal of this stretch is to:

A PTA is taking a patient through pressure biofeedback for correction of a forward head posture.  The PTA has taught the patient to perform a chin tuck, flex both arms to 90 degrees and abduction both arms to 90 degrees.  The next progression is:

A patient with an anterior pelvic tilt is assessed for muscle length deficits.  Which muscle group is likely to be adaptively lengthened and weakened in this posture?

A patient demonstrates a posterior pelvic tilt in standing and reports tight hamstrings. The physical therapist assistant wants to select a hamstring stretch that minimizes lumbar flexion and emphasizes true hamstring lengthening.  Which stretching technique BEST addresses this goal?

A PTA is working with a patient with decreased ROM and pain in their shoulder.  When attempting to increase shoulder flexion, the therapist should stretch the:

A therapist instructs a patient in supine chin‑tuck exercises to activate the deep cervical flexors while minimizing activity of superficial muscles.  Successful performance of this exercise indicates activation of which muscle group?

The sacrum contains multiple openings on its anterior and posterior surfaces.  Which structure passes through the sacral foramina?

A therapist is developing a therapeutic exercise program for a patient with excessive lumbar lordosis related to anterior pelvic tilt.  Which intervention would be most appropriate to address the underlying postural impairment?

Case: VTE and antiplatelets Name: Khafra HermanAge: 75Gender: MaleMedical History: Hypertension, Hyperlipidemia, Depression, arthritis in R hipChief Complaint: “I’m here for my pre-op appointment. I’m having my right hip replaced in 2 weeks.” HPI: KH has been having right hip pain due to arthritis for the last few years. After meeting with an orthopedic surgeon, it was decided that he should have a hip replacement, which is currently scheduled for 2 weeks from now. Today, the patient is meeting with the pharmacist in clinic to complete the pre-op medication history. KH states that he has been taking his lisinopril and amlodipine for high blood pressure for the past 15 years. He has been on cholesterol medications for awhile and he was changed to his current atorvastatin dose about 8 years ago after the guidelines changed. He has been on sertraline for his mood for many years and his mood has been stable. He has been taking aspirin for a ‘long time’ and his PCP recommended that he start taking it to prevent a heart attack many years ago. He takes his acetaminophen at least once a day for his hip pain, sometimes more if he has an active day. Current Medications: Lisinopril 40mg daily Amlodipine 5mg daily Atorvastatin 80mg daily Sertraline 50mg daily Aspirin 81mg daily Acetaminophen 500mg 1-2 tablets q6 hrs prn hip pain Social history: 1-2 beers in the evening after work, walks the dog at least once a day for ~10-15 minutes when he’s able to tolerate the pain Labs: Serum creatinine: 1.0 mg/dLCalculated CrCL (Cockcroft-Gault, actual body weight): 81 mL/min Vitals: BP:  122/78 mmHg 10-year ASCVD risk: 26.6%

A non-inferiority RCT compared baricitinib to adalimumab for rheumatoid arthritis. Examining the footnote of the results table, you notice that 12 participants randomized to the baricitinib group received adalimumab and 21 participants randomized to the adalimumab group received baricitinib. How do these treatment errors affect the trial results?