A 45-year-old male presents to the clinic with sudden onset of severe left-sided flank pain that radiates to his groin, with associated nausea but no fever or dysuria. On exam, he is restless and frequently changes position. His vital signs are stable. An abdominal x-ray is obtained and is shown below. Based on the patient’s presentation and findings on the abdominal radiograph, what is the most likely diagnosis?

A  40 year old man is suspected of having a genetic form of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.  Which tests would be best confirm this suspicion?

In which diagnostic test would an allergy to iodine be a concern?

Which of the following pulmonary function values is most consistent with asthma?

A shellfish allergy is an absolute contraindication to receiving contrast.

A 50-year-old average-risk male with no family history asks about colon cancer screening. According to USPSTF guidelines, which is an acceptable option for him?

A 62-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of worsening crampy abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. He reports no bowel movement or passage of flatus over the past 24 hours. On exam, his abdomen is distended and tympanic with high-pitched bowel sounds. Based on this presentation, what is your next immediate management step, and what diagnostic study would you order to confirm your suspected diagnosis?

A patient is suspected of having a nonviable pregnancy. Which serum beta human chorionic (beta hCG) gonadotroprin pattern supports this suspicion?

The last menstrual period is a better estimation of gestational age in comparison to an ultrasound.

What is the purpose of blood typing with Rh (D) during pregnancy?