A 54-year-old female comes into your office with concerns of…
A 54-year-old female comes into your office with concerns of falling. She states that over the last few months, she has a feeling of numbness and “tingling” in her feet. She denies any problems with her balance and denies vertigo, but does not feel “sure-footed.” She denies any neurological history. Past medical history is significant for hysterectomy 10 years ago for menorrhagia and a bowel resection for Crohn’s disease. On exam, the patient has decreased reflexes and sensation bilaterally in her lower extremities. CBC reveals a Hgb of 9.1 with an MCV of 114. The peripheral blood smear is shown (see image). The patient’s methylmalonic acid (MMA) level is elevated. What is the most likely cause of the patients current symptoms?
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