A 50-year-old female with PMH significant for HTN comes to y…
A 50-year-old female with PMH significant for HTN comes to your clinic for a refill of her lisinopril medication. She is also taking lovastatin and hydrochlorothiazide. Vital signs are: HR 80, BP 150/100, and BMI 40. Physical exam is remarkable for a waist-to-hip ratio of 1.0 and the presence of diffuse dark patches on her skin (see image below). Her fasting lab results are: Sodium: 145 mmol/L, Potassium: 5.0 mmol/L, Chloride: 105 mmol/L, Bicarbonate: 25 mmol/L, BUN: 10 mg/dL, Creatinine: 1.0 mg/dL, Glucose: 200 mg/dL, Triglyceride: 200 mg/dL, LDL: 250 mg/dL, Total cholesterol: 300 mg/dL, HDL: 30 mg/dL, and Hemoglobin A1C: 7.0%. The patient’s history, physical exam, and laboratory findings are most consistent with which of the following conditions?
Read DetailsA 74-year-old male presents to the emergency department acut…
A 74-year-old male presents to the emergency department acutely obtunded. The patient lives alone and was found unresponsive by his son. Generally, the patient manages his own finances, medications, and works part-time. He has not been responding to phone calls for the past 3 days. The patient is unable to offer a history. He has a past medical history of hypothyroidism, depression, and diabetes. His temperature is 88.0°F (31.1°C), blood pressure is 92/62 mmHg, pulse is 35/min, respirations are 9/min, and oxygen saturation is 92% on room air. The patient is cold to the touch and moves all extremities to painful stimuli. His pupils are reactive and sluggish, and he does not follow commands. There are no signs of trauma or skin infections. Which of the following conditions is the most likely diagnosis?
Read DetailsA 34-year-old G2P2 female presents to her obstetrician becau…
A 34-year-old G2P2 female presents to her obstetrician because of new onset discharge from her breast. She first noticed it in her bra a few days ago, but now she notes that at times she’s soaking through to her blouse. She was also concerned about being pregnant because she has not gotten her period in 3 months. In the office ß-HCG is negative. The patient’s nipple discharge is guaiac negative. Which of the following therapies is most appropriate?
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