A client received preservative-free morphine in her spinal for a schedule cesarean section.  The priority nursing assessment during the first 24-hours postop for this client, is assessment for the possibility of:

A 28-week gestation client on continuous intravenous infusion of magnesium sulfate ordered for fetal neuro-prophylaxis and short-term tocolysis, had a baseline respiratory rate of 12 per minute before this infusion started.  Her current assessment revealed a respiratory rate of 6 per minute.  What additional assessment should the nurse collect at this time to evaluate signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity, to ensure client safety at this time?

A client has recently been diagnosed with high blood pressure and is at 38 weeks gestation, seems upset and tells the nurse that the physician told her she needs to have a non-stress test.  The client asks why she needs the test.  The nurse’s best response would be:

Which sign of a potential complication is the most important for the nurse to share with the client?

It is important for the nurse to develop a realistic birth plan with the pregnant woman in her care.  The nurse can explain that a major advantage of non-pharmacologic pain management is:

The nurse is preparing to care for a client in labor.  The health care provider has prescribed an intravenous infusion of oxytocin to augment her labor.  The nurse assures that which of the following are implemented prior to initiating this infusion?

Chadwick’s sign of pregnancy is:

Which antepartum test is best in predicting possible chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus?

Which of the following immunizations would be contraindicated to be administered during a pregnancy?

Which statement by the nurse describes the type of questions that help distinguish if a client is experiencing true labor? (select all that apply)