A 79-year-old patient presents to outpatient physical therapy 3 weeks after a fall with persistent dizziness and headache. They report a brief period of confusion but no loss of consciousness.   Which factor most increases this patient’s risk for prolonged recovery? 

An 80-year-old female patient is referred to outpatient PT for evaluation and treatment of strength, balance, and posture with a diagnosis of osteoporosis. She was diagnosed with osteoporosis after sustaining a T10 compression fracture from a fall. Patient reports 1 additional fall in the last year, occurring in the shower, after which she had shower strips placed on the floor. Medical Diagnoses from her records include:   Diabetes mellitus type II with Diabetic peripheral neuropathy  Diverticulosis  Fibromyalgia   Hypercholesterolemia    When reviewing the patient’s DEXA Scan, which of the following results would the PT expect to see? 

Case Study: An 80-year-old female patient is referred to outpatient PT for evaluation and treatment of strength, balance, and posture with a diagnosis of osteoporosis. She was diagnosed with osteoporosis after sustaining a T10 compression fracture from a fall. Patient reports 1 additional fall in the last year, occurring in the shower, after which she had shower strips placed on the floor. Medical Diagnoses from her records include:   Diabetes mellitus type II with Diabetic peripheral neuropathy  Diverticulosis  Fibromyalgia   Hypercholesterolemia   As part of the plan of care, the PT includes safe functional mobility training. Which of the following pictures describes safe functional mobility for a patient with osteoporosis?  

A physical therapist assesses a patient after sustaining a traumatic anterior shoulder dislocation following a fall on an outstretched hand. He expresses concerns and seeks guidance from the PT on the best course of action.  Which of the following statements best supports evidence-based clinical practice?   

Case Sally: A 32-year-old female has a chief complaint of worsening left shoulder pain over the last 3 months. She states that her pain is localized to the anterolateral aspect of the shoulder, described as a dull, aching pain. The treating physical therapist has performed a thorough subjective and objective examination (OE). Items included in the OE included:  Upper quarter clearing examination  Shoulder range of motion (all normal, except for 20 degrees of lacking shoulder internal rotation)  Shoulder manual muscle testing (weakness/pain with shoulder scaption/external rotation)  Special tests including: (+) Hawkins Kennedy, (+) painful arc sign   The PT observes a deficit in shoulder internal rotation and decides to use joint mobilizations to address this limitation. Which joint mobilization should be performed, considering the normal biomechanics of the shoulder?

Which statement is most accurate regarding optimal rehabilitation for an individual following an Achilles tendon repair?

Which statement best reflects the evolving role of physical therapy in concussion management? 

A 57-year-old female is evaluated by a physical therapist (PT) for right shoulder pain diagnosed as a “rotator cuff tear” by her physician. The PT gathers the following information during the evaluation: Medical History: Smoker, depression, anxiety, hypertension, obese Yellow Flags: The patient is currently involved in a workers’ compensation settlement regarding her injury. She is not working at this time. Past Treatment: The patient has received treatment from two different medical providers without success. Objective Examination: The examination was difficult to complete due to increased pain with palpation, and the PT was unable to assess manual muscle testing (MMT) or range of motion (ROM). Given this information, what is the patient’s overall physical therapy prognosis?

A physical therapist (PT) is treating a fifth metacarpal fracture (Boxer’s fracture) planning to immobilize the hand. What type of fracture would this be defined as? 

A physical therapist is performing “skin traction” to treat post-operative cording (Axillary Web Syndrome). During the manual technique, a “pop” is heard and felt. Which of the following is the most appropriate interpretation and subsequent action?