A 22 year old women presents with a 4 day history of swelling and pain in her right inguinal area. She has no past medical history. She states there has been increased swelling and tenderness a few days after noticing an ingrown hair in the area. She has no history of skin infections. Her temperature is 99.2*F and she appears well. Along the right inguinal crease there is a 5 cm x 3 cm area of induration with central fluctuance. The area is tender to palpation, especially toward the central portion. There is no erythema, streaking or crepitus. The rest of her examination is unrevealing. Which of the following next steps is most appropriate to manage this patient’s skin lesion?

A 63 year old patient with diabetes mellitus presents with a 36 hour history of progressive right lower extremity pain and swelling that began after stepping barefoot on a rusty nail. Initial urgent care prescribed cephalexin for presumed cellulitis, but the patient returns with worsening symptoms.  Vitals include: BP 102/60 mmHg, HR 114, RR 24, Temp 101.4*F.  He appears confused. Physical examination shows an area of erythema on the right foot with purple discoloration, several tense bullae, and crepitus extending up the ankle. Laboratory studies, including blood cultures, are drawn. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

Assume that the economy starts out with potential and current real GDP being the same.  If the government increases spending, then in order to ensure an inflationary gap doesn’t exist, the FED must .  The effect of ONLY the change in the money supply will investments into physical capital, and cause .  

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Suppose that there is currently a recessionary gap, then the FED should the money supply by US securities or the required reserve ratio.    

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If the economic stability in the US increases, then the equilibrium exchange rate will and as a result imports will , and the United States real GDP will .  

Assume that initially the economy starts out with current and potential real GDP being the same.  If the government decreases spending then the US budget will be more likely to be in a .  In response to the decrease in government spending the investment into physical capital will , and this simultaneous change will cause short-run real GDP to .  

Assume that the government wants to close a recessionary gap, then it should income taxes.  In response to this change in taxes, labor supply will .  In order for the recessionary gap to be eliminated the change in real GDP caused by the change in taxes must be the effects of the change in labor supply on real GDP. (Assume that short-run aggregate supply does NOT change despite any of the changes mentioned.)

Which of the following would guarantee an inflationary gap? (Select ALL that apply)