A 68-year-old man with chronic heart failure presents with worsening dyspnoea and bilateral basal crepitations. Which drug class provides rapid symptomatic relief by reducing preload but does not improve long-term survival? (1)

A patient with an acute ischaemic stroke presents 6 hours after symptom onset. Computed tomography scan excludes haemorrhage. What is the most appropriate immediate antithrombotic therapy? (1)

A 64-year-old man with ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) presents to a district hospital without access to percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). Thrombolytic therapy is planned. Which mechanism best explains the action of alteplase? (1)

Match the following drugs to their primary pharmacological actions. Each answer may be used more than once, or not at all. (5)

60-year-old man with stable heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) is initiated on dapagliflozin despite having no history of diabetes. What best explains the benefit of this drug in heart failure? (1)

Sildenafil is associated with (1)

Mr. KL presents at the Accident and Emergency Department with a painful erection of the penis that has lasted for more than four hours (priapism). After aspiration of engorged blood from the penis, he should be treated with penile injections of. (1)

A 55-year-old man with newly diagnosed essential hypertension has persistent blood pressure readings of 152/96 mmHg despite lifestyle modification. According to the South African Standard Treatment Guidelines, which is the most appropriate first-line pharmacological therapy? (1)

Match the following drugs to their mechanism of action. Each answer may be used more than once, or not at all. (5)

Match the following drugs with their correct mechanism of action below. You may use an option more than once or not at all. (5)