A 70-year-old woman is receiving total parenteral nutrition…
A 70-year-old woman is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via central line for severe pancreatitis. She develops fever and chills, and blood cultures grow Staphylococcus aureus. Which of the following is the most likely complication?
Read Details58-year-old male presents to the ICU with septic shock secon…
58-year-old male presents to the ICU with septic shock secondary to pneumonia. After 3 L of crystalloid resuscitation, his MAP remains at 60 mm Hg, lactate is 4.8 mmol/L, and ScvO₂ is 88%. Which of the following best explains his hemodynamic profile in the early hyperdynamic phase of distributive shock?
Read DetailsThe AGACNP is evaluating a patient in the ED with chronic lo…
The AGACNP is evaluating a patient in the ED with chronic low back pain and considering additional pharmacologic treatment prior to discharge. Balancing control of a patient’s chronic pain with prevention of potential opioid overdose is important. Which of the following is true?
Read DetailsA 65-year-old man with sepsis is started on broad-spectrum a…
A 65-year-old man with sepsis is started on broad-spectrum antibiotics (vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam). Cultures later grow methicillin-sensitive Staphylococcus aureus (MSSA). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Read DetailsA 58-year-old woman with a history of poorly controlled diab…
A 58-year-old woman with a history of poorly controlled diabetes presents with altered mental status and deep, rapid respirations. Laboratory studies reveal a high anion gap metabolic acidosis. After confirming the elevated anion gap, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in acid-base analysis, and why is this step clinically important?
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