A 29-year-old man presents to the health department clinic w…
A 29-year-old man presents to the health department clinic with complaints of a painless genital ulcer that appeared 1 week ago. He relayed that he had a new male partner with inconsistent condom use. He denies any dysuria or urethral discharge. On physical exam, the nurse practitioner notes a single, non-tender ulcer on the penis and palpates bilateral, non-tender inguinal lymphadenopathy. What is the most appropriate next step?
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