A 12 yo male is brought to the office because of recurrent e…
A 12 yo male is brought to the office because of recurrent episodes of epistaxis during the past two months. He has no history of bruising or unexplained bleeding. While he is in the exam room, an episode of epistaxis occurs. On physical examination, anterior bleeding is visible within the Kiesselbach plexus. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management?
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