A patient presents to PT one year after axillary lymph node removal due to breast cancer.  The patient now has edema in their arm which does not reduce with elevation.  The skin appears normal in texture with very little fibrotic changes noted.  What is the most appropriate staging of this patient’s lymphedema? 

Which of the following can occur due to neurologic damage?

A ‘significant tear with complete loss of biomechanical integrity of a ligament’ is best termed: 

Joint inflammation that occurs as the result of massive infiltration of immune cells into the synovial fluid describes the pathophysiology of which of the following diseases? 

Which modifiable risk factor has been shown to have the largest correlation to developing a stroke?  

Which of the following statements about comas is NOT true? 

Which of the following diseases involves fusion of the spine and a characteristic “Bamboo spine” appearance on X-ray?  

Which disease is characterized by rigidity, tremor, bradykinesia, and impoverished movements?  

Which of the following statements regarding carpal tunnel syndrome is TRUE?  

Which of the following is thought to play a part in the development of Alzheimer’s Disease?