ASSESSMENT:1.  Mitral regurgitation, status post mitral valve repair.2.  Underlying preserved systolic function with recurrent atypical chest pain for angina pectoris.3.  Anxiety.4.  Hypertension. The patient’s persistently high blood pressure could be treated with thrombolytic agents.

A pulmonary embolism is most often caused by __________.

The inability to breathe is termed __________.

_____________ is the term for nosebleed.

Oropharynx refers to the __________ and throat.

Bronch/o is a combining form meaning _______________.

Pneumoconiosis is a general term describing a condition of ________ in the lungs.

__________ is an obstructive pulmonary disease that results in loss of lung elasticity.

Melena refers to ______________.

SUBJECTIVE:  The patient is a very pleasant 78-year-old gentleman who appears to have labored respirations with low levels of activity.   No pleuritic discomfort, no hemoptysis, no fevers or chills.  He does make very purulent phlegm.   He was seen as an inpatient.  He had a CT scan of the chest.  He has a chronic pulmonary infiltrate at the left base.   We certainly cannot rule out an underlying neoplasm there, but he appears too sick to even consider bronchoscopy.   At this point in time, we will electively treat him with a course of Levaquin, given the purulent nature of his phlegm, for 10 days.  He will be seen once again here in the office in four weeks with a CXR one week before his next visit.  If he has any deteriorating symptoms, he should go to the emergency room.  He does not look toxic.  He has dyspnea with exertion but fairly comfortable at rest. The patient is too sick to directly measure the lung volume and capacity.