Post-Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis (PSGN) is a condition that occurs after an infection with Group A Beta-Hemolytic Streptococci. Which of the following best explains the mechanism of this condition?

In prostate cancer, what is a primary consequence of abnormal androgen receptor (AR) signaling?

A 32-year-old woman presents with very heavy menstrual bleeding and complaints of fatigue. Based on these symptoms, which of the following lab results would you most likely expect to find?

How can the nurse identify that a client is at risk for upper gastrointestinal bleeding based on the client’s medication history? (Select all that apply)

While caring for a client with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), which of the following symptoms would the nurse expect to find due to malabsorption? (Select all that apply)

Which of the following best describes a “shift to the left” in a blood test?

What is the highest priority problem statement in the care plan for a client with ulcerative colitis?

Which statements regarding the enzyme lactase are true? (Select all that apply)

A 32-year-old woman presents with a 3-day history of urinary urgency, frequency, and dysuria. She also complains of lower abdominal discomfort, but denies fever, nausea, or flank pain. She has no history of significant medical conditions, but reports that she has had similar symptoms in the past, which were resolved without treatment. Based on her signs and symptoms what is the most likely diagnosis?

A 58-year-old male presents with dull flank pain and hematuria. Upon examination, a mass is palpated in the left flank. Given these clinical manifestations, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis related to renal tumors?