The FNP is seeing Lorie, a 54-year-old post-menopausal femal…
The FNP is seeing Lorie, a 54-year-old post-menopausal female for her annual examination. Lorie reports that she has not had a menstrual period in two years. The provider performs a urinalysis. The dipstick reveals 1+ hematuria. What is the next best action for the FNP?
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