A 42-year-old male presents to your primary care office for…
A 42-year-old male presents to your primary care office for follow-up after a recent emergency room visit, where he was diagnosed with a right lower lobe segmental pulmonary embolism (PE) and right popliteal deep vein thrombosis (DVT). His CTA confirmed PE, and Doppler ultrasound confirmed the DVT. He was started on heparin in the ER and transitioned to apixaban (Eliquis) upon discharge. He reports adherence to the medication. He also has a history of marijuana use. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
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