A 28-year-old patient comes for intractable headache. She w…
A 28-year-old patient comes for intractable headache. She was tried on multiple medications with no response. She started having blurred vision recently. Her exam is normal except early papilledema. Imaging study of the brain was unrevealing. You recommended lumbar puncture. All CSF tests were normal, except increased CSF opening pressure of 35 cm of water (normal 8-19). Of the following medications, which one is the LEAST likely to be the reason for this patient’s problem?
Read DetailsFigure 1. Diffusion Weighted Image (left) Apparent Diffusion…
Figure 1. Diffusion Weighted Image (left) Apparent Diffusion Coefficient – ADC (right) 60 year old man presents with ataxia. An MRI is obtained and is shown in Figure 1. Which of the following is most likely to result from this injury?
Read DetailsA 59-year-old man presents to the clinic with a broad-based…
A 59-year-old man presents to the clinic with a broad-based unsteady gait. He is unable to walk in a straight line and moves from side to side as he walks. His upper limb coordination is intact. He has no history of vertigo, and no nystagmus is noted on physical examination. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s symptoms?
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