A 28-year-old male presents to the clinic with a painless lump in his left testicle that he noticed three weeks ago. He denies any history of trauma or infection. On physical examination, there is a firm, non-tender mass in the left testicle. The transillumination test is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

You are performing a pelvic exam on a 15 year old and note a soft cervix with a bluish hue. You recognize these findings as positive:   

On physical exam, you observe the following abnormal findings: spacing between the teeth, a widened maxilla, an enlarged mandible, and unusually large hands and feet. An EKG shows evidence of left ventricular hypertrophy. Based on these findings, which diagnosis is most likely?

A 65-year-old male presents with difficulty starting urination, a weak urine stream, and a feeling of incomplete bladder emptying. During the digital rectal exam, you note a uniformly enlarged, firm, and non-tender prostate. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Bonus Question: You are seeing a patient in follow up for an uncomplicated pregnancy. You will ask her to begin kick counts at what week of gestation?  

You are interpreting orthostatic BP readings of a patient.  You will diagnosis Orthostatic Hypotension when: 

A 26-year-old sexually active male presents to the clinic with concerns about lesions on his genitalia. He reports multiple small, flesh-colored bumps on his penis that have been present for a few months. He denies pain or itching. On physical examination, you observe several small, raised, and cauliflower-like lesions on the shaft of the penis. There are no vesicles or ulcerations. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Which is expected in female sexual maturation? 

You note contractures in a patient you are currently examining.  This finding is associated with:  

Each of the following are risk factors for osteomylitis except: