A 42-year-old woman with HIV presents to the clinic with a concern about genital warts. She has noticed them over the past several months and would like to have them removed. She prefers self-treatment, in the privacy of her home. On physical examination, you confirm that she has multiple vulvar warts, each less than 0.5 cm. Which one of the following is an appropriate self-application treatment of vulvar warts for this woman?

A client who has frequent recurrences of candidiasis should be evaluated for what other condition?  

A diabetic female patient complains of severe vulvar pruritus with discharge.  Examination reveals an erythematous vaginal mucosa with patchy, curd-like, white discharge.  The wet mount will most likely show:  

The HSV virus travels from where to the skin surface?             

A 31-year-old woman presents with a one-week history of thin, gray vaginal discharge. After a thorough evaluation, she is diagnosed with bacterial vaginosis. She is sexually active with men. In addition to treating her for bacterial vaginosis, which one of the following is recommended regarding the treatment of her sex partners?

Which statement about HSV 1&2 is true?                                               

An 18-year-old patient presents with a 5 day history of very painful vulvar ulcers that began as small “blisters”.  She is also complaining of a low-grade fever and headache. Large painful vulvar and perineal ulcers and inguinal lymphadenopathy are found on examination.  The most likely diagnosis is:  

The patient must instructed to maintain a liquid diet for a week after a liver biopsy.

General anesthesia is recommended for percutaneous biopsies.

A young adult female is being evaluated in your office. She is complaining of vaginal itching, thick yellow mucus discharge, and urinary discomfort. She is sexually active and uses condoms with one of her partners, but not both. On physical exam, the abdomen is negative. The pelvic exam reveals the cervix to have a mucopurulent discharge and friability. The bimanual exam is negative. Samples for NAAT’s were taken however results are not available yet. Wet mount with KOH is negative for whiff test. Microscopy reveals few clue cells, > 10 WBC’s per HPF, no yeast, no trichomonads. What is the likely diagnosis and treatment?