64. Mrs. Murphy is a 58-year-old woman presenting with sudde…
64. Mrs. Murphy is a 58-year-old woman presenting with sudden left-sided headache that is most painful in her left eye. Her vision is blurred, and the left pupil is slightly dilated and poorly reactive. The left conjunctiva is markedly injected, the eyeball is firm. Vision screen with the Snellen chart is 20/30 OD and 20/90 OS. The most likely diagnosis is:
Read Details48. You examine a 38-year-old woman who has presented for an…
48. You examine a 38-year-old woman who has presented for an initial examination and Pap smear. She has no complaints. Her blood pressure is 154/98 mm Hg bilaterally and her body mass index is 31 kg/m2. The rest of her physical examination is unremarkable. Your next best action is to:
Read Details50. A 68-year-old Caucasian female presents with hypertensio…
50. A 68-year-old Caucasian female presents with hypertension and BP of 152-158/92-96 mm Hg documented over 2 months on three different occasions. Electrocardiogram (ECG) and creatinine are normal, and she has no proteinuria. Clinical findings include the following: BMI 26.4 kg/m2, no S3, S4, or murmur; and point of maximal impulse at fifth intercostal space, mid clavicular line. Which of the following represents the best intervention?
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