A 31-year-old woman presents with a one-week history of thin, gray vaginal discharge. After a thorough evaluation, she is diagnosed with bacterial vaginosis. She is sexually active with men. In addition to treating her for bacterial vaginosis, which one of the following is recommended regarding the treatment of her sex partners?

Which statement about HSV 1&2 is true?                                               

An 18-year-old patient presents with a 5 day history of very painful vulvar ulcers that began as small “blisters”.  She is also complaining of a low-grade fever and headache. Large painful vulvar and perineal ulcers and inguinal lymphadenopathy are found on examination.  The most likely diagnosis is:  

The patient must instructed to maintain a liquid diet for a week after a liver biopsy.

General anesthesia is recommended for percutaneous biopsies.

A young adult female is being evaluated in your office. She is complaining of vaginal itching, thick yellow mucus discharge, and urinary discomfort. She is sexually active and uses condoms with one of her partners, but not both. On physical exam, the abdomen is negative. The pelvic exam reveals the cervix to have a mucopurulent discharge and friability. The bimanual exam is negative. Samples for NAAT’s were taken however results are not available yet. Wet mount with KOH is negative for whiff test. Microscopy reveals few clue cells, > 10 WBC’s per HPF, no yeast, no trichomonads. What is the likely diagnosis and treatment?

MRI guided biopsy is routinely used for lesions that could not be identified on other imaging modalities.

Endoscopy is the examination and sampling of the gastrointestinal system.

Cystic or necrotic lesions have high soft-tissue contrast and are not ideal under fluoroscopy guidance.

Fine needle biopsy samples give limited information about the tumor.