A woman is discharged 48 hours after an uncomplicated delivery of a normal infant. She has a lateral episiotomy and was voiding easily on discharge. The next day she calls regarding increased pain in her perineal area. She has taken ibuprofen as directed and her perineal area is tender and swollen and she is having increased difficulty voiding. What instructions would you give this client?

When counseling women following first trimester loss, the WHNP/CNM can inform the client that approximaly 50% of losses are the result of:

Mastitis followed by breast abscess is most frequently due to:

The advanced practice nurse should always use the newest medication on the market when prescribing a drug for a pregnant woman. 

A 22 year old G1PO woman at 34 weeks gestation presents with moderate vaginal bleeding and no uterine contractions. Which of the following is not appropriate?

Risk factors for preeclampsia include which of the following:

A 22 year old G1PO woman at 34 weeks gestation presents with moderate vaginal bleeding and no uterine contractions. Which of the following is not appropriate?

You saw a G4T3A0L3 client 2 weeks ago for her initial prenatal care visit at 11 weeks gestation and she had positive fetal heart tones. At that time, she told you that she is unsure of paternity since she has 3 current sexual partners. In addition, she has been treated for gonorrhea and chlamydia on numerous occasions. She calls today stating that she is having reddish-brown vaginal spotting without pain. The most likely differential diagnosis at this point is:

According to the CDC and March of Dimes, what is the recommended amount of daily folic acid supplementation that all women of reproductive age should receive to help prevent birth defects?

What is the antibiotic/s of choice for a postpartum endometritis?