A 22 year old G1PO woman at 34 weeks gestation presents with moderate vaginal bleeding and no uterine contractions. Which of the following is not appropriate?

Risk factors for preeclampsia include which of the following:

A 22 year old G1PO woman at 34 weeks gestation presents with moderate vaginal bleeding and no uterine contractions. Which of the following is not appropriate?

You saw a G4T3A0L3 client 2 weeks ago for her initial prenatal care visit at 11 weeks gestation and she had positive fetal heart tones. At that time, she told you that she is unsure of paternity since she has 3 current sexual partners. In addition, she has been treated for gonorrhea and chlamydia on numerous occasions. She calls today stating that she is having reddish-brown vaginal spotting without pain. The most likely differential diagnosis at this point is:

According to the CDC and March of Dimes, what is the recommended amount of daily folic acid supplementation that all women of reproductive age should receive to help prevent birth defects?

What is the antibiotic/s of choice for a postpartum endometritis?

Which of the following most commonly cause of uterine subinvolution?

A 27-year-old woman presents for her yearly GYN visit. She is planning on having a baby within the next year. Because she lives on the coast and her predominant diet is fish, she ask about current recommendations regarding this. Your response is:

A woman who has type I diabetes presents for preconception counseling and care. Her HBA1c is 8.9 %.  Which of the following statements is true?

Infertility for heterosexual couples under age 35 is defined as failure to achieve a successful pregnancy after 12 months of regular intercourse.