A 58‑year‑old patient with a 15‑year history of type 2 diabe…
A 58‑year‑old patient with a 15‑year history of type 2 diabetes presents for routine follow‑up. He reports no visual complaints. Fundoscopic examination reveals microaneurysms, intraretinal hemorrhages, venous beading, and cotton‑wool spots, but no neovascularization. Based on the underlying pathophysiology and stage of disease, which management strategy is most appropriate?
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