A 24-yeаr-оld pаtient visits the clinic cоmplаining оf flu-like symptoms, lymphadenopathy, and a rash that developed two weeks after a high-risk sexual encounter. The physician is concerned about a possible acute HIV infection. The laboratory’s initial screening protocol utilizes a 4th-generation HIV-1/2 immunoassay. What is the primary diagnostic advantage of using a 4th-generation immunoassay for this patient compared to older 3rd-generation (antibody-only) screening tests?