A patient presents with a one-month history of insidious onset, intermittent, toothache-like pain in the right shoulder and neck. They also report occasional numbness and tingling down the arm, and a heavy feeling during yard work. Cervical radiculopathy testing is negative. Which of the following special tests is MOST appropriate to further investigate his symptoms? 

A physical therapist performs the cervical flexion rotation test (CFRT) on a patient with headaches. The test reproduces the patient’s symptoms with 24 deg of rotation to the right and 42 deg to the left. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate interpretation? 

During a patient interview, a physical therapist discovers that a patient is two weeks post vertebroplasty. This procedure was MOST likely performed for which of the following medical conditions?

A patient with temporomandibular joint dysfunction reports pain and difficulty opening their mouth. Which of the following muscles plays a PRIMARY role in mandibular depression by pulling the condyle and disc anteriorly?

A 20-year-old dancer reports frequent jaw clicking and describes a sensation that her jaw feels like it “slips out” when she opens her mouth wide to yawn or sing, although it usually “goes back in” on its own. She denies locking, and her range of motion is greater than normal. Which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis?

A 35-year-old woman presents to your clinic 4 weeks after a motor vehicle accident (MVA). She reports ongoing neck pain and headaches, and you note hypertonicity in her neck muscles. During your examination, the patient demonstrates deep neck flexor endurance of 25 seconds and a Cranio-Cervical Flexion test (CCFT) with a 10-second hold at 22 mm Hg. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial intervention?

A patient reports right shoulder pain with diffuse paresthesias into the hypothenar eminence, fourth and fifth fingers. The patient also reports coolness and swelling in the hand when he uses his arm overhead at work. No myotomal or dermatomal deficits noted. Spurling’s test is negative for symptom reproduction. Which of the following choices is the MOST likely diagnosis responsible for the patient’s signs and symptoms?

150 mg/dL = ? g/L

Prescription: Ampicillin 500 mg IV every 6 hours. Directions: Add 4.5 mL of 0.9% sterile normal saline to yield 1 gram of of Ampicillin per 5 mL. How many mL will the nurse administer?

A patient on BIPAP is using a nasal mask. The leak alarm is triggering and you notice that the patient is having a hard time closing her mouth. A [words1] can be used to help close her mouth or switching to a [word2] mask.