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A 62-year-old postmenopausal woman presents with severe vulv…

A 62-year-old postmenopausal woman presents with severe vulvar pruritus and dyspareunia. On exam, you note thin, hypopigmented plaques involving the vulva and perianal area in a “keyhole” distribution. The vagina appears normal. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment?

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Which of the following BEST defines student professionalism?

Which of the following BEST defines student professionalism?

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Which behavior demonstrates professionalism during class dis…

Which behavior demonstrates professionalism during class discussions?

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Which motor milestone is expected by 4 months?

Which motor milestone is expected by 4 months?

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Which finding warrants referral to a reproductive urologist?

Which finding warrants referral to a reproductive urologist?

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A breastfeeding patient who is 3 weeks postpartum presents w…

A breastfeeding patient who is 3 weeks postpartum presents with unilateral breast pain, redness with red streaking, fever (101.4°F), and flu-like symptoms. She reports worsening pain during feeds and localized tenderness. Which diagnosis is most likely?

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A 29-year-old has chronic pelvic pain for 2 years. She repor…

A 29-year-old has chronic pelvic pain for 2 years. She reports alternating constipation and diarrhea, bloating, and pain that improves after defecation. She also endorses dyspareunia and dysmenorrhea. Which statement best reflects clinical reasoning for her evaluation?

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Which patient scenario most requires referral for specialize…

Which patient scenario most requires referral for specialized abortion services?

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Which laboratory test is most appropriate to screen for nona…

Which laboratory test is most appropriate to screen for nonalcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) in a child with obesity?

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A 34-year-old G2P2 presents for routine well-woman care. She…

A 34-year-old G2P2 presents for routine well-woman care. She is asymptomatic and immunocompetent. Her screening history includes a negative Pap with negative high-risk HPV testing 3 years ago. At today’s visit, primary HPV screening is positive, with reflex cytology showing negative for intraepithelial lesion or malignancy (NILM). HPV genotyping is negative for types 16 and 18. How should the NP counsel this patient regarding her HPV result?

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