Which one of the following is not the risk factor for seminoma?

Prostate specific antigen is elevated in case of:

Infection of the testicle, it is called?

What is the most common correctable cause of male infertility?

A 19 year old male comes for a scrotal ultrasound because of a palpable mass in the right testicle. He has gynecomastia and labs showing an increase in estrogen. The most likely diagnosis is:

Ultrasound image in a patient untreated epididymo-orchitis. Sagittal ultrasound image shows the multiseptated fluid collection containing internal debris. Most probably the abnormality is?

A 78-year- old man presents with elevated prostatic acid phosphatase (PAP) & prostate specific antigen (PSA). The following image is obtained. Most probably the abnormality is?

A 45-year- old HIV-positive man presents with left scrotal swelling and pain. A color flow Doppler examination reveals the following findings: Which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis?

Refer to the sagittal view of the right testicle below: Which of the following is seen on this image?

Seminoma spread initially to: