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The nurse practitioner is evaluating an 18-year-old patient’…

Posted byAnonymous September 15, 2026September 15, 2026

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The nurse prаctitiоner is evаluаting an 18-year-оld patient’s understanding оf the treatment plan for eczema. Assuming the patient understands her plan of care, he expects that she will say:

Whаt аre three prаnayama breathing techniques tо cоntrоl the vagus nerve? (Select 3)

InstructiоnsReаd eаch questiоn cаrefully.Answer each questiоn by bubbling your answer on the Scantron answer sheet.After you have finished answering all questions, select TRUE.Click Finish Attempt at the bottom of the page.On the next page, click Submit All and Finish.If a confirmation message appears, click Submit All and Finish again to complete your submission.Once your assessment has been submitted successfully, notify your proctor that you are finished. Please wait for the proctor's instructions before proceeding to the next step.PIC Module 4 Key/Version A____     1.   Which part of the nervous system has the greatest influence on regulating the endocrine glands? a. Cerebellum c. Basal nuclei b. Pons d. Hypothalamus     ____     2.   What sections of the nervous system work in tandem to maintain the body's internal balance (homeostasis)? a. Cerebrum and midbrain c. Hippocampus and thalamus b. Diencephalon and basal nuclei d. Hypothalamus and brainstem     ____     3.   Which of the following does not help preserve cognitive function as a person ages? a. Exercise c. Playing Scrabble b. Avoiding groups of people d. Keeping good heart health     ____     4.   Which of the following changes is not typically associated with the aging nervous system? a. Brain mass decreases c. Mental abilities decrease b. Brain cells are lost d. Neurological diseases increase in occurrence     ____     5.   The dilation of pupils is caused by the activation of which part of the nervous system? a. Parasympathetic nervous system   c. Somatic nervous system   b. Sympathetic nervous system   d. All apply.       ____     6.   What is one of the key roles of the sympathetic division in the autonomic nervous system? a. Inhibits tears   c. Inhibits urination   b. Decreases intestinal activity   d. All apply.       ____     7.   Which of the following describes an action performed by the parasympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system? a. Speeds up the heart c. Constricts bronchioles b. Stimulates the liver to release glucose d. Inhibits salivation     ____     8.   Which statement is incorrect regarding the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system? a. The ganglia are located near the effectors.   c. The preganglionic neurons are short.   b. Cell body of the preganglionic neuron is in the thoracolumbar region of the spinal cord.   d. The postganglionic neurons are long.       ____     9.   What neurotransmitter is primarily associated with the parasympathetic nervous system's activity? a. norepinephrine. c. serotonin. b. dopamine. d. acetylcholine.     ____   10.   Which autonomic division is responsible for initiating the "fight or flight" response in the body? a. parasympathetic nervous system.   c. somatic motor nervous system.   b. sympathetic nervous system.         ____   11.   In typical autonomic nervous system pathways, how many neurons are involved in transmitting signals from the central nervous system to the target effector? a. One c. Three b. Two d. Four     ____   12.   Norepinephrine acts as a neurotransmitter within which system? a. parasympathetic nervous system.   c. both parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems.   b. sympathetic nervous system.         ____   13.   The term "craniosacral division" is used to describe which part of the autonomic nervous system? a. parasympathetic nervous system.   d. vagal system.   b. sympathetic nervous system. e. enteric nervous system.   c. somatic nervous system.         ____   14.   Which system governs the body's restful and maintenance activities? a. parasympathetic nervous system.   c. both parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems.   b. sympathetic nervous system.         ____   15.   What physical reaction occurs in the body during the ankle-jerk reflex? a. Plantar flexion   c. Extension of the knee   b. Dorsiflexion   d. Extension of the toes       ____   16.   What is the physiological response during the knee-jerk reflex? a. Contraction of the hamstring muscles   c. Contraction of the quadriceps femoris muscles   b. Contraction of the abdominal muscles   d. Contraction of the gastrocnemius muscle     ____   17.   Which of the following represents the correct order of components in a reflex arc? a. Effector, motor nerve, sensory nerve, interneuron, receptor   c. Receptor, sensory nerve, interneuron, motor nerve, effector   b. Sensory nerve, interneuron, receptor, motor nerve, effector   d. Receptor, effector, interneuron, sensory nerve, motor nerve       ____   18.   Reflexive, automatic responses to stimuli that involve the brain are referred to as what? a. cerebral reactions.   d. electroencephalograms.   b. cranial reflexes.   e. voluntary, ballistic movements.   c. ranges of motion.         ____   19.   From which region of the spinal cord does the femoral nerve originate? a. Lumbar region c. Thoracic region b. Sacral region d. Coccygeal region     ____   20.   Which of the following peripheral nerves does not provide innervation to the muscles or skin of the hands? a. Radial nerve   c. Median nerve   b. Ulnar nerve   d. Musculocutaneous nerve       ____   21.   Which peripheral nerve is responsible for innervating the anterior region of the thigh and leg? a. Sciatic c. Femoral b. Phrenic d. Intercostals     ____   22.   The diaphragm receives its primary innervation from which peripheral nerve? a. Radial c. Musculocutaneous b. Ulnar d. Phrenic     ____   23.   Which of the following spinal nerve regions is not accurately paired with the correct number of nerve pairs? a. Thoracic - 12 c. Lumbar - 5 b. Cervical - 7 d. Sacral - 5     ____   24.   Which cranial nerve is the only one that extends beyond the head and neck region? a. Accessory c. Hypoglossal b. Vagus d. Trigeminal     ____   25.   Which cranial nerve listed below is not classified as exclusively sensory in function? a. Vestibulocochlear   c. Optic   b. Olfactory   d. Trochlear       ____   26.   Which cranial nerve is incorrectly associated with its specific function? a. Glossopharyngeal - muscles for swallowing   c. Hypoglossal - neck and back muscles b. Vagus - sensory and motor for internal organs   d. Vestibulocochlear - hearing and balance       ____   27.   Which of the following cranial nerves is not entirely motor in its role? a. Trigeminal c. Spinal accessory b. Trochlear d. Abducens     ____   28.   Which cranial nerve has no involvement with the movement or sensation of the tongue? a. Glossopharyngeal c. Trigeminal b. Hypoglossal d. Vagus     ____   29.   Which cranial nerve is involved in both sensing the sour taste of a lemon and controlling the facial expression in response to its sourness? a. Trigeminal c. Abducens b. Facial d. Glossopharyngeal     ____   30.   Which cranial nerve does not play a role in controlling the muscles that move the eye?   a. Glossopharyngeal c. Trochlear b. Oculomotor d. Abducens     ____   31.   Which cranial nerve is incorrectly associated with its physiological function? a. Olfactory - smell c. Abducens - feeling from the face b. Oculomotor - eye movement d. Trochlear - eye movement     ____   32.   Neurons involved in stimulating glandular secretion are part of which system? a. Autonomic motor system d. Somatic sensory system   b. Somatic motor system   e. All apply   c. Visceral sensory system       ____   33.   Which system is responsible for the innervation and control of skeletal muscles? a. Somatic c. Parasympathetic b. Sympathetic d. All apply.     ____   34.   Which system is primarily concerned with the regulation of internal organs (viscera)? a. Somatic   c. Somatic and autonomic   b. Autonomic         ____   35.   Which of the following structures is not innervated by the somatic sensory division of the peripheral nervous system (PNS)? a. Stomach   c. Special senses   b. Skeletal muscles   d. Skin       ____   36.   The endoneurium is a connective tissue layer that surrounds what structure? a. fascicles. c. individual axons. b. muscle fibers. d. cell bodies.     ____   37.   A bundle (fascicle) of axons is enclosed by which connective tissue layer? a. perineurium. c. epineurium. b. endoneurium. d. myelin sheath.     ____   38.   Damage leading to conduction deafness typically affects which structures? a. organ of Corti. c. cochlear nerve. b. incus, malleus, and stapes. d. All apply.     ____   39.   The gradual loss of hearing that occurs with age is known as what? a. presbycusis.   c. conduction deafness.   b. otosclerosis.   d. sensorineural deafness.       ____   40.   The degeneration of the central region of the retina, including the fovea centralis, leading to the loss of detailed vision, is referred to as what? a. glaucoma.   c. macular degeneration.   b. presbyopia.   d. cataracts.       ____   41.   What is the most common cause of blindness in older adults? a. glaucoma.   d. presbycusis.   b. presbyopia.   e. diabetic retinopathy.   c. macular degeneration.         ____   42.   Which structure within the ear provides your brain with information when you slide forward and collide with a surface? a. Semicircular canals c. Spiral organ b. Utricle d. Saccule     ____   43.   Which part of the ear informs your brain that you are spinning in place, such as during a sit-spin? a. Semicircular canals   c. Spiral organ   b. Utricle and saccule   d. Ossicles       ____   44.   Which ear structure communicates to the brain that you are in an upside-down position? a. Semicircular canals   c. Spiral organ   b. Utricle   d. Saccule       ____   45.   In the utricle and saccule, what structures interact with the stereocilia of hair cells to initiate a sensory response? a. Ampullae   c. Otoliths   b. Cupulae   d. Cochlea       ____   46.   Which of the following structures does not play a role in the sense of balance? a. Vision   c. Proprioceptors in joints and muscles   b. Hearing   d. Cerebellum       ____   47.   Which of the following is not a part of the semicircular canals? a. Ampulla   c. Otoliths   b. Cupula   d. Endolymph       ____   48.   Which structure is responsible for detecting rotational movement or equilibrium? a. Saccule   c. Semicircular canals   b. Utricle   d. Both saccule and utricle are correct.       ____   49.   Which structure is involved in detecting changes related to gravitational equilibrium? a. Saccule   c. Semicircular canals   b. Cochlea   d. Ampulla       ____   50.   Which region of the spiral organ is responsible for detecting low-frequency sounds?   a. The tip   c. The base   b. The middle   d. Along the entire length       ____   51.   What type of fluid is found within the cochlear duct? a. Endolymph   c. Perilymph   b. Air   d. Mucus       ____   52.   The stereocilia of hair cells in the organ of Corti are embedded in which structure? a. basilar membrane.   c. oval window.   b. tympanic membrane.   d. tectorial membrane.       ____   53.   In which part of the ear is the spiral organ located? a. Cochlear duct   c. Tympanic duct   b. Vestibular duct   d. Semicircular duct       ____   54.   The auditory cortex, responsible for processing sound, is found in which region of the brain? a. temporal lobe. c. insula. b. parietal lobe. d. occipital lobe.     ____   55.   What fluid or structure is contained within the membranous labyrinth? a. Air c. Blood b. Perilymph d. Endolymph     ____   56.   What is the correct anatomical sequence of the auditory ossicles, from outermost to innermost?   a. Malleus, incus, stapes c. Stapes, incus, malleus b. Incus, malleus, stapes d. Incus, stapes, malleus     ____   57.   What is the name of the organ responsible for detecting sound? a. crista ampullaris. c. spiral organ. b. macula. d. saccule.     ____   58.   Which of the following structures possess hair cells that function as sensory receptors? a. Cochlea   c. Vestibule   b. Semicircular canals   d. All apply.       ____   59.   The sensory receptors for both hearing and balance are located in which part of the ear? a. outer ear.   c. inner ear.   b. middle ear.         ____   60.   Which of the following structures does not play a role in the process of hearing? a. Ossicles c. Semicircular canals b. Cochlea d. Pinna     ____   61.   What anatomical structure separates the outer ear from the middle ear? a. Auditory tube c. Oval window b. Round window d. Tympanic membrane     ____   62.   What is the primary function of the auditory (Eustachian) tube? a. Equalizes air pressure in the middle ear   c. Allows passage of the auditory nerve   b. Allows fluid to drain out of the inner ear   d. Allows us to hear ourselves speak       ____   63.   To which structure is the stapes directly connected? a. Tympanic membrane   c. Malleus   b. Oval window   d. Round window       ____   64.   Which structure is linked to the nasopharynx by the auditory (Eustachian) tube? a. Inner ear   c. Middle ear   b. Cochlea   d. Outer ear       ____   65.   Which of the following is not one of the auditory ossicles? a. Stapes   c. Cochlea   b. Malleus   d. Incus       ____   66.   The ossicles are components of which part of the ear? a. middle ear.   c. inner ear.   b. outer ear.         ____   67.   The cochlea belongs to which section of the ear? a. middle ear.   c. inner ear.   b. outer ear.         ____   68.   The external auditory canal is part of which portion of the ear? a. middle ear.   c. inner ear.   b. outer ear.         ____   69.   Individuals who can see distant objects more clearly than near objects are said to have what condition? a. hyperopia.   c. presbyopia.   b. myopia.   d. astigmatism.       ____   70.   An increase in intraocular pressure due to excess aqueous humor is referred to as what? a. cataracts. c. a sty. b. glaucoma. d. astigmatism.     ____   71.   Individuals who can see objects up close but have difficulty seeing distant objects have what condition? a. hyperopia. c. presbyopia. b. myopia. d. astigmatism.     ____   72.   Blindness resulting from abnormal growth of blood vessels in the retina is referred to as what? a. cataracts.   c. glaucoma.   b. macular degeneration.   d. conjunctivitis.       ____   73.   Some axons of the optic nerve cross the midline at which anatomical structure? a. thalamus.   c. optic radiations.   b. optic chiasma.   d. optic disk.       ____   74.   The left optic tract carries axons from which visual field? a. the left half of each retina.   c. the left half of the left retina and the right half of the right retina.   b. the right half of each retina.   d. the right half of the left retina and the left half of the right retina.       ____   75.   Which function is controlled by the autonomic nervous system? a. Controls voluntary skeletal muscle movement c. Controls conscious body movements b. Controls actions of internal organs d. Controls voluntary limb coordination

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